Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 11:59

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
NJ electric bills are about to jump 20% — who's to blame and what can you do? - Gothamist
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
More dental problems as you get older? Aging may not be the real reason - San Francisco Chronicle
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
CNBC Daily Open: Elon Musk's companies report positive developments amid his return to work - CNBC
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.